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#1 |
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Hi, my friend has recently had an accident on hes sv.
Basically he was going ahead at the traffic lights and an oncoming car was turning right(hes left) The car pulled in too much and made my friend panic which made him slam hes front brakes and the front wheel locked. There is quite abit of damage to the bike but there was no collision with the car. How would insurance look at this situation whos at fault? |
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#2 |
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it can only be his fault, as there was no contact with the other vehicle then technically the other vehicle wasn't involved in the accident at all.
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#3 |
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Cobblers, there doesn't have to be an impact for the other vehicle to be involved or the driver to be held at fault. Proving it however is another matter. Are there any witnesses, did the other driver stop, did he get any details?
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#4 |
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He said the car had came into hes lane so he braked and slightly swerved at the same time!
Yeah the driver had hes friend next to him, they have exchanged details and the driver has agreed to pay %50 of the damage but what results can he get if he goes onto make a claim from insurance? |
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#5 |
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Sounds like an admission of guilt to me. Why would you offer to pay 50% of someone elses damage if it wasn't your fault?
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#6 |
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best people to talk to is insurance company. they know best and get their opinions.
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#7 | ||
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To be honest if your mate admitted he panicked and slammed on the brakes and the other guy's saying sorry and offering money toward repair, I think a split (be it 50/50 or otherwise) with no need to involve the insurance companies is the best way forward. But that's just from how it sounds , depends if I've perceived it right and how the other bloke is about it all.
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#8 |
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Just be aware there is no halfway ground here. Either deal directly with the other driver, accept their offer of 50% and pay the rest yourself, or go to the insurance companies, hope they pick up the bill, and spend the next few years paying it back via increased premiums. If your mate is a new rider, and the bike can be fixed up reasonably well I'd seriously consider the former....
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#9 | |
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![]() Only kidding it's a good point, but it doesn't mean he'll be viewed 100% at fault if it went to insurance...or even 1%
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#10 |
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I know... it's the kind of thing I'd be stupid enough to do. But being completely cynical I think that's how an insurance company would see the offer.
If they did view it as a 50/50 fault surely there would be no paying for half of the damage? If one person is at fault their policy pays for all damage, if it's 50/50 each party pays for their own.... right? (BTW the OP should know I have no experience with insurance like this... just speculating). |
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